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People, we don’t say things like chewing gum is not tznius, or wearing sunglasses is not tznius. We use the proper word, tznua, in this context.
The proper plural of Shabbas/Shabbat is Shabbasos/Shabbatot. It is not Shabbasim.
I feel much better now.
Shabbat Shalom
Is isnt tznius to correct other people.
Shabbosim is Yiddish, Shabbosos/Shabbatot is Hebrew.
and its def not tznius to say shabbasos/shabbatot bec no1 says that and it would be attracting attention to oneself
Tznius is used to describe the act of being a Tzanua.
Therefore especially in yiddish the statement “Es Iz Nisht Tznius,”
is used mainstream.
Shabbatot Shlomiot
LOL
The Yiddish language has its own rules of grammar.
How did Yom Tov become ‘yontif’???
Shalish shudis
Shalishudis as one word.
Yeah whenever people say Shabbosim it really irks me!! (And I’m so not into dikduk, it’s mad.) I do say talleism though…
The difference between “yontif” and “shaleshudos” or “balebatim”
is that all the sounds in the latter two were present in the
original words, whereas there is no “n” in “yom tov.”
(As for the “f,” “v” is close enough.)
As for the “m,” “n” is close enough;)
Actually, it isn’t.
Go “fffff” and then “vvvvvv” and see how much of a difference there is,
then go “mmmmmmm” and then “nnnnnn.”
Actually, when you contract the words “??? ???,” it’s not difficult to hear how the “m” could have become an “n.” It’s much more difficult to say “yomtif” than “yontif.” There are people who do say “yomtif,” but it’s not so common because it’s harder on the mouth.
By the way, there are examples of words in the English language that are actually written the way they are to make pronunciation easier. For example, the word “irresponsible” is not “inresponsible” because it’s harder to say. Same for “immobilize” and the like. Obviously ???? ??? isn’t going to have exceptions like that (or at least I think not-correct me if I’m wrong), but you could understand why words change. (Shaleshudis is the same thing- it’s not easy to say “??? ??????,” especially as Americans who pronounce everything ??????, when most Hebrew words are ?????.)
It’s ba’al kriah not ba’al korei. Korei means reader. Kriah means reading. It’s master of the reading (ba’al kriah) not master of the reader (ba’al korei).
“(As for the “f,” “v” is close enough.)”
Which is why people call themselves “rifki”
the “o” in chol hamoeid is not pronounced like the “o” in pot.
seider has a d, as does agudah.
chavrusa tumel, italicized or chavrusa tumult, the second word unitalicized.
“daven for the amud” doesn’t make any sense.
????? and ????, not ????? and ??????
what simcha613 said, plus- ‘tokeia’ not “ba’al tokeia”
chanukkah and purim are not chagim
“licht bentchin” should probably be “licht tzindin”
people go to shul (or a bais k’neses), not to minyan.
there are no three day yomim tovim.
There are two “o”s in chol hamoeid…..
And I straight up disagree with 3 day yomim tovim. It’s just a matter of convenience. Otherwise you’d have to call it something like “two day yom tov adjacent to shabbos”. If you do that, well, I don’t see why you think it’s necessary for everyone else to.
scared driver delight- or you could say ??? ?????, no?
I’m fond of telling people that the “baal koreh” is either the guy from Hameniach or the Koreh’s husband, though FWIW the Aruch Hashulchan uses the yiddish tallesim instead of the Hebrew tallitos.
If were nitpicking, it’s Hamaniach not Hameniach (??? under the ?).
Which reminds me, the “ah” sound is pronounced Patach not Pasach (??? ??? in the ?).
Re Yontif, it’s like the English word “comfortable”, which is more commonly pronounced confortable or confterble.
Passover in Hebrew is Pesach. Polish pronunciation would render it Peisach. Paysach doesn’t mean anything.
I’ve don’t think I’ve ever heard “comfortable” pronounced with an “n.”
(Welcome back to the CR, Ravshalom!)
Re Yontif, it’s like the English word “comfortable”, which is more commonly pronounced confortable or confterble.
I’m not sure where you live, but I’ve never heard comfortable pronounced with an “n.”
ravshalom: right you are. After all “dikduk” does literally mean “nitpickery” doesn’t it?
ItcheS, you could say that I guess.
But I much prefer to think of dikduk as exactness.
(As in “dikduk b’mitzvos”)
RebYidd23 tells us: “The Yiddish language has its own rules of grammar.” Actually, every language has its own rules of grammar. Can someone recommend an authoritative text that lays out Yiddish rules of grammar? In the Yiddish-speaking yeshivas, is there a text book that is used to teach Yiddish grammar?
??? ????? ???? is probably a hybrid of ????? ???? and ??? ???.
“Bez din.”
Re: g’mar tov
I always learned that on Rosh Hashana we say k’siva v’chasima tova, on Yom Kippur we say, g’mar chasima tova, and on Succos, g’mar tov (and a gutte kvittel).
Gmar chasima tova makes sense… you’re wishing the other person that the final sealing of his din for this year should be good.
And “bez din” is just a way of pronouncing. What about people who say the name “Aharon” as “Ahrin” or “Yaakov” as “Yankiv”? It’s yeshivish-speak.
??? is ???? ???
???? is ?????
Plus, what’s the “final sealing”? Are there different stages in the sealing?
Not yeshivish-speak, but an accent.
??? ?????, not ???? ?????.
Why’s that? Who in the world is ????
Why’s that?
Who in the world is ????
That’s why.
It’s supposed to be ?? ?????, that’s out Yetzer, the biggest ??, that barks, ????. Oy does he bark. And in the end of days HaShem will prepare a feast of him…
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