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May 11, 2014 5:25 am at 5:25 am
#1014242
HaLeiVi
Participant
Of course not. Because he actually refers to the talking donkey as a literal, physical event. There are three references to it by the Rambam. One of them was understood by many to be taking it less than literal while the other two show otherwise. Is there a reason why this one reference is always the only one mentioned??