I haven’t thoroughly reviewed every post here but there is one point I haven’t seen addressed. Why would a officer responding to a call of illegal peddling be notified of the suspects state of health? How would this officer know whether this suspect would resist causing him to use any means of physical contact, be it the proper way or not? And finally, if this man had no health issues, would subduing him in this method (proper or not) have harmed him in any way more then the usual restraint method?
Menu