“But I do believe that with all the pogroms against Ashkenazie Jews , there is a theory that their fathers are Ukrainians, hence Uman.”
This sentence makes no sense at all. Was there a typo somewhere, or is it just really under-explained?
There were pogroms in Uman, but I don’t see any connections between that and having Ukrainian ancestors. Wouldn’t that make you think it’s less likely to have had intermingling?