I don’t think that the Rambam was talking about this type of paradox. Also it is widely known that the Rambam didn’t learn kabballah until after he wrote his sefarim (cf. Shomrei Emunim haKadmon, see below) and so he may not have been aware of the “tzimtzum” until then. I don’t claim to understand it myself, but I think it is logical to say that a contraction to Infinite is itself a paradox.
But even without that we can already see that we are a paradox to Hashem to begin with. How do you explain ‘??? ??? ???? ???? without minimizing Hashem? How can there be an existence let alone a finite one in tandem with the Infinite without taking away from its infinity?
This is a quote from the Shomrei Emunim HaKadmon. He was a Rishon. In ????? ?”? there he quotes the Abarbanel’s ???? ???? ?”? (among others):
??? ??? ????? ????”? ???????? ??? ????? ??? ??? ??????. “???? ??? ?? ??? ??? ??? ???? ?? ????? ?? ??? ?????? ?????? ???? ??? ??????? ????? ????? ????? ???? ?? ?????? ???? ?????? ???”. ???? ??? ????? ???? ??? ??? ??? ???? ???? ??”?