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Usually I see how one translation may apply and so would another. But in this case of Proverbs 18.1, I could not see how the two second portions were in any way in sync with one another. But that said, I personally like both. But without true hebrew learning, one is not really completely able to fully merit the full understanding if he is to wish to investigate this to completion.
But that said, I am not completely in knowledge about Solomon and his writing. Was King Solomon one that wrote and expressed himself in Hebrew in that day? David too? Was aramaic the way of the time? If that is the case, then even the hebrew was added at another time. But still, I will imagine that it was truly written in hebrew to the best of my knowledge. Certainly it was not an english work.