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December 27, 2011 1:01 am at 1:01 am
#883214
☕ DaasYochid ☕
Participant
The obvious reason is because Mumar may be Menasech
Actually, in this teshuva, R’ Moshe explains how it’s not because of that. He comes out that it’s based on minhag. Whether bishul would be included would presumably be dependent on what the minhag was.