squeak:
oom read my phrasing again. if you thought between the infinites i meant only ordinary numbers then you would have to interpret between 0 and 1 the same way.
So you are saying that since there is only one class of infinite set that you would be referring to between zero and one, you should logically interpret any other classes of infinity being referred to in the same context as the same, yes? I think the opposite–since there can be more types of infinity in reference to the continuum than in reference to the space between zero and one, you cannot establish any sort of parallelism with which you could reasonably perform that induction. (i. e. I don’t see how you can claim it is intuitive.)