DaasYochid; we are going around in circles and maybe we are both right. But I have a question for you that has been bothering me for some time. The gemoro in sukkos brings proof that,in certain circumstances, there must be a separation of the sexes from “novih” -zecharyah ,to be exact.(see sukkos 52A)Why doesn’t the gemoro bring proof from the Torah- when Miriam and the women went out to say shirah? it is explicit that the women were separate from the men. Wouldn’t that be proof enough?
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