I agree with popa_bar_abba.
A more realistic and common example is the wife uses a non-Jewish court in violation of halacha (halacha generally strictly prohibits the usage of non-Jewish courts) to adjudicate
asset separation
child custody/visitation
child support
alimony
all in accordance with secular law as opposed to Jewish law on the above matters, as is required according to halacha. So, in effect, she insists on utilizing non-Jewish law for almost all the divorce issues (since secular law is far more beneficial to the wife than Jewish law/halacha is) and then immediately turns around and demands Jewish law/halacha be invoked in issuing the get/divorce — right after eschewing Jewish law/halacha when it wasn’t to her favor.
So after stealing his money (halacha asserts he generally owns all post-marital assets while secular law is generally 50/50) and denying him custody/visitation of his children — all in contravention of Jewish law — she then suddenly invokes Jewish law regarding demanding a get? What’s good for the goose is good for the gander.