To clarify, my original question was:
Does the presence of “strong language” in a work make it assur to
read (etc.) it? The question was not about nivul peh – the
issur to read such things is well-known. (I did want to make a
point about the use of that term, though.) The question was also not about using such language yourself.
I highly doubt that strong language would make it assur.
“Well, according to Rav in Chulin 95b…”
I think HaLeiVi’s reference is to Rav asking, rhetorically,
“Because of this shoteh who acted improperly,
should we forbid all the meat in the marketplace?”
I am so sorry Comlinx and scared d. d. for not answering that question. I can’t believe I didn’t answer this earlier.
My M”M is the Taz in YD 124:1 who discusses the issue of nivul peh. If you see it, you”ll see that it is hard to believe the Taz is talking about inapproiate matters. It seems that he is talking about curse words.
The Taz is l’ch’oirah talking the same type of speech the gemara is talking about, which is speech about inappropriate matters.