Why do you need to bring the Targum Yonasan to prove that the Jews were not oleh l’regel at ??? ?????? I mean, without the Targum Yonasan they simply stayed in Mitzrayim until the next morning, so they were certainly not ???? ????!
You then say that since ??? ????? were not ???? ???? at ??? ?????, no ???? was required. I suppose you mean that even according to the Minchas Chinuch ???? Tosafos that a regular ???? ??? requires ???? for it to be an obligation, ??? ????? is somehow different, and does not need the ownership of ???? for it to be a ????. So we agree that the ?????? could not have had a ???? regarding ??? ?????, since there is no need to have ???? for it to be a ????; and, if ???? ?????? had been written after ????? ????, they could not have had a ???? regarding any other ??? either! Which brings us back to your original ???? (which is really the ???? ?’s explanation of Rebbi Yitzchok’s ????): why could ???? ?????? not have been written after ????? ?????
So what have you answered exactly?