So here’s my devar torah:
Everyone knows that in the aseres yemei teshuvah we add/change certain words in shemoneh esrei. The Gemara in Berachos (12b) discusses hamelech hakadosh and hamelech hamishpat. The Gemara quotes the opinion of R’ Eliezer that one is yotzei by saying hakel hakadosh. R’ Eliezer adduces support for his position: The Pasuk in Isaiah 5:16 (which is in fact recited in this very beracha, on Rosh Hashanah and Yom Kippur) says ???????????? ?’ ????-???? ????????????? ??????-? ?????????? ????????? ??????????. This pasuk is clearly referring to the 10 Days of Repentance (???????????? ?????????????) and yet H’ is referred to as ????-?. The Gemara does not provide any response to this proof. Yet we don’t pasken like R’ Eliezer (as the Gemara explicitly states). So what do we do with his proof?
Perhaps the answer is that the fact that the pasuk refers to H’ as ????-? doesn’t prove anything, because the Chachamim could have been mesaken the wording of the berachah as “hamelech” regardless of how the pasuk refers to H’.
I hope that was inspiring enough.