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September 30, 2010 10:38 pm at 10:38 pm
#1039856
hello99
Participant
holtzichfest: That’s the Gemarra I referred to, the Magen Avraham 8:3 understands it refers to the talis.
The Maharil, Rokeach and Rosh all write that the minhag was for bochurim NOT to wear taleisim based on the proximity of the pesukim ?????? ???? ?? and ?? ??? ??? ???. They are all from Germany and its seems much more likely that the original minhag was that ALL Ashkenazi communities did NOT wear taleisim until the chasuna and the Yekkes changed later for various reasons. Please bring a source for your speculation that it was for economic reasons, I have otherwise from older yidden born in Frankfort.