I’m not sure why you’re asking me what *I* would say when I’ve already stated that I don’t believe it to be bittul Torah.
I’m just surprised that you’re not familiar (or in agreement) with what I thought was a universally accepted concept of “bittul Torah b’eichus”, so I thought I might be misunderstanding you.
Do you think it’s perfectly fine, or do you agree that it’s better to learn more in depth, it’s not called “bittul Torah” not to?