I have a different question, bothering me a lot.
The passuk says ??? ????? ??? ??? ?? ??? ????? ?, the Gemarrah asks just because they looked they were punished?
There is an explicit passuk in Bamidbar: ??? ????? ????? ???? ?? ???? ????, which seems to indicate exactly as mentioned indeed! Actually, in Shmuel, the pirush of R. Yeshaya (I think) mentions that Passuk. And is close to what the Maharsha is saying. So what is the Gemarah so astonished?
Anyone with an illumination / clarification would be appreciated.