It is late, but nobody posted anything so here goes:
In davening we say “??? ?????? ????????? ?’. ??? ??????? ???????? ?????????”. Why do we say both ?????? without the dagesh as well as ??????? with the dagesh? The addition of the dagesh shows addred force or strength. So what we are acknowleging here is that Hashem will often be passive at times which are confusing to us ??????, soft, yet will seemingly punish someone with force at the slightest infraction ???????.
We praise Hashem for this and we also show that we admittedly as removed from understanding Hashem’s ways.
As a side point, if you look in the Tanach, whenever Refuah is mentioned as coming from Hashem, it is without a dagesh, and when mentioned coming from a doctor with a dagesh. This is because only Hashem can bring a true refuah without any added pain (e.g. the dentist drilling more before fixing a tooth).