The significance of the question is that the “obey” thing is accepted nearly universally as a Jewish value. In previous threads in the CR, there were heaps of comments about the husband as the melech, while the wife was relegated to the position of slave (I’m exaggerating, but not by much). It sounded from these opinions as if the “obey” thing was a Jewish value, and that is clearly not true. The only obeying between spouses found in the Torah is ?? ?? ????? ???? ??? ??? ?????, with ????? being Divinely instructed to obey his wife, ???. I suspect the OP was to trigger just this discussion, not to explore the boundaries and rules of the non-Jewish marriage vows.
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