CTL, suppose there was an example (take the following hypothetical scenario as fact) where two Jewish parties come to civil court in a contractual dispute that halachicly may only be adjudicated in Beis Din using Jewish law to determine who is right and who is wrong and only utilizing halachic standards of evidence, in a case where utilizing secular court is halachicly prohibited, i.e. there is no heter arkaos. (Suppose one of the parties wrongly forced the other party into civil court whereas the other party was prepared to accept beis din.) And the case is assigned to a Jewish judge who is halachicly prohibited to use secular law and standards of evidence to adjudicate the dispute. What do you suggest the Jewish judge do and, in reality, what do you think he will actually do?
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