KY
Poe’s law is already established law it doesn’t need any more proof.
“I don’t understand your last post”
Thats ok, your a bit late to this party and clearly havent read through the wwhole thing (not that I blame you) as you are repeating a lot of silly points that have been addressed already.
I will repost the main point from my last post, which points you in the direction of, what I think out point of disagreement is. :
“but that doesn’t make Aramaic holy”
So that is where we differ, we may be defining “holy” differently . See joseph’s excellent concise explanation at the top of page 6, and my wordier one linked to right after his.
TC
see Jacobs, Neil G. (2005). Yiddish: a Linguistic Introduction. Cambridge University Press. p. 2. who says it is 900-1100 years old
It certainly was in use in the 13th century (not quite 1000 years ago but close) as the oldest yiddish inscription appears in the Worm’s Machzor : ““Gut taq im betage se vaer dis mahsor in beith hakenseth trage,””
(As an aside 13th century Yiddish similar to today’s Yiddish, and the above sentence is quite intelligible if you speak yiddish, compare to 13th century English (ie middle English) eg here is a line from “The Owl and the nightingale” “Þe bloſtme. gynneþ ſpringe & ſpred Boþe in treo & ek in mede. which apparently translates to The blossoms quickly spring and swellon every tree and in the dell:)