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March 17, 2021 11:34 pm at 11:34 pm
#1958207
rightwriter
Participant
If the language/letters changed, on what basis do we claim that we as a people are the same and unchanged as the Jewish Nation from the beginning?
Because if we are different than the “original” why do we claim that all those empires are gone and we are still here? On this basis italians can still claim to be from the Roman empire, Iranians from Persian Empire and so on. Our empire is gone as well. Only as a people we are still here.
The fact that the language/writing has changed kind of throws a wrench in the whole machinery of things.