Mr. B doesn’t own how house to have enough equity in there to pay the bills for Mr. A (that’s why I was asking if the government can put a lien on the house owned by Mr. A).
Aside from that- I’m not sure what you’re getting at- my question was if the government can take money from one person to pay the medical bills of another person. (And yes, if it goes one way it should go both ways- but should it go the first way to begin with?)