ICOT:
Thanks for the detailed explanation. The result is there are 10 additional girls every year who never get married (using our imaginary scenario). So if this scenario happened from the year 1500 to present (2009), you would have 10 girls each and every year who never get married (in every single year), while every boy can and does get married. (The first year this setup starts is not part of my concern for this excersize, nor is the latest years.)
This obviously works on pen and paper using simple math. But the mental hangup that is causing me indigestion that I cannot seem to swallow, is how is it mathematically possible that if there are EXACTLY the same number of boys and girls… EVERY boy can get married, while some girls cannot (due to a lack of boys.) I must be missing something here.
BTW I discounted other factors, such as differences in the gender ratio, survival rates, OTD ratio between genders, etc. since I
a) want to see if/how the age gap issue is mathematically possible
b) these other factors are statistically unknown in the frum community and
c) the ONLY solution for a numerical plurality of girls vs. boys is reinstitution of polygamy. There is simply no other way to insure the marriage of all girls, if there are more marriageable girls than boys.