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December 6, 2010 7:00 am at 7:00 am
#715447
TheChevra
Member
Clearly they would be without standing to demand that only part of the divorce process, i.e. the issuing of the Bill of Divorce (i.e. “get”), be provided to them under Jewish law, but that the other aspects of the divorce (i.e. assets and custody) be governed under non-Jewish law (i.e. secular law.)