But, the gemara does a ????? if she was ??? ???, and would probably also say the same for a ???.
Even so, one could tayna that the gemara simply held that it is more pashut that such a takana was made when there is an issur d’oraisa involved. But I admit I am biased by my preconceived notion that ???????? ?????? should not be ???? ??? ????.
Maybe that is because there is no issur d’oraisa of ?? ????? for ?????. Is there?
There isn’t. However, the whole limud is a hekesh which in truth is the pashtus of the pasuk, which says ?? ???? ???? ??? ?? ???? ????? ???, ?? ???? ??? (from memory, hope I got it right ?”? ???? ?? ???), which basically says that the actual ma’aseh of ??? ??? is tantamount to murder. Therefore I don’t understand how one could apply that to ?? ?????.