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simcha613-
Why are you using the word “moral”? The Torah doesn’t say anything about it being moral or immoral. At one point it wasn’t permitted, then later it became permitted. End of story. Would it be as difficult for you to understand if at one point in history sha’atnez was permitted and at another it was prohibited? It shouldn’t be. If it is, it’s probably because there is a lot more personal feeling in this question as there is intellectual detachment.
Toi-
About basar ta’ava, I don’t know why you would choose to pasken like R’ Yishmael over R’ Akiva. ???? ???? ????? ??????. At the very least you should mention that this is one opinion.