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November 17, 2011 10:18 pm at 10:18 pm
#827737
passfan
Member
midwesterner:
When the Steipler zt’l paskened that one cannot be yotzei with the Sephardic pronunciation, was the Steipler applying his psak only to Ashkenazim or was the Steipler saying even Sephardim are not yotzei with the Sephardic pronunciation?
Thanks