The transliterations are not a function of religion or ideology but of language. Different letters have different sounds in each language. If the Roman script language you are used to is English, for example, the sound the ? makes is “sh” but if you are used to French that sound is “ch”. How to transcribe a ? also varies with different languages using c, k or q. What Indo-European (Aryan) speakers due to ? is highly problematic. The ? has been pronounced at various times as a “th”, a “s” and a “t” – and in fact some Jews use each, and to complicate matters,while the “th” sound is in English, it wasn’t in Latin, so there is no single letter for it in English.
Linguistics is fsacinating, but it isn’t a function of frumkeit. A Hareidi Jews who is used to French, or one who was used to German (as was the case in Europe), and based their transliterated (romanized) spellings according, will write things differently than someone whose prefered goyish language is English.