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3. In my opinion, the mere process of baking shmurah matzah automtically confers lishmah on it. Hundreds or thousands of years ago, the baking process was an everyday fact of life and the matzos needed to be singled out for Pesach. Nowadays, it is obvious what these matzos are for, and so they are lishmah automatically.You can disagree, but my opinion is perfectly logical.
It is definitely ???? to deliberately make it ??? ????.
None are a birur, all are a din
Isn’t one of the fundemental differences between ??? and ???? that ??? is a ????? and ???? is a ??? (many ??????? speak about it; I know at least the ???? ???? uses this to explain why ???? ????? ???? ????)?
yitayningwut – I didn’t really undestand what you wrote. If there is a ??? of ???? ??? ??? by ???????, then why do you need 1/60, 1/100 and all the different ????? of ?????, as long as there is a majority you can say “I am taking from the ???”?
And were you tring to use the machlokes whether issur nehepach lheter to argue with the ???? ??? ????