Sam2- sorry but I have no clue what you are saying. The question is whether the ‘sholosh shevuos” became binding-like any other halacha. It is not an ‘eitzah tovah” whatsoever.
My question is simple: how can the Rambam actually “pasken” (remember, this is Moshne Torah that ratifies halochos)that the Moshiach will wage war against our opressors (he calls them “milchamos Hashem)if the “sholosh shevuos” that prohibit rising up against the gentiles is halacha? Clearly, the Rambam did not accept that the shevuos are halacha and that we are bound by them,as he explicitly paskens against them.