June 27, 2014 6:20 pm at 6:20 pm
#1021714
akuperma
Participant
Sam2 and Splenda: Unless the courts of a place are enforcing the requirement that a man support his wife, there is no reason for a women to refuse a “get” since the “get” is written after the man has stopped paying for her bills. If the laws requiring men to pay their wives’ bills were enforced, few men would refuse to write a “get” except in situation where they didn’t want a divorce (and if one of the partners to a marriage wants to stay married, it probably is still the time for counseling, not litigating).