Reply To: Rambam vs. Ramchal

“???? ????? means Jews.”

It’s possible. The Rambam does not use this term in any other place in Peirush Hamishnayos* nor anywhere in Mishneh Torah. He uses it once in Moreh Hanevuchim* in a context which can theoretically be interpreted either way. So we can’t really prove what he means based on other usages.

*These are both originally in Arabic so the term ???? ????? may not be perfectly accurate in the first place. There are also several translations, not all of which have the term ???? ????? in perek cheilek.