But that’s exactly the issue- that the same words are used to describe a male group as would be used to describe a female group. That’s why I never understood the Gemara that quotes the Shema “v’limadetem otam et b’neichem” and goes on to say “bneichem v’lo bnoteichem” as why would the Torah say “et bnoteichem”? This would exclude males. And it would be unnecessary to write “bneichem v’gam bnoteichem.” Since we know the Torah has no extra language, the natural conclusion is that the same word, b’neichem, would be used whether the Torah meant exclusively boys or both boys and girls.
Note that I’m not trying to bring this as a proof that women can learn Torah. I’m simply pointing out that based on the wording, it’s impossible to draw a definitive conclusion, so it makes no sense to try to use it as a disproof either.