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November 19, 2017 6:56 pm at 6:56 pm
#1405899
Joseph
Participant
He is explaining why their wives wore tichels, but their daughters, with their blessings, wore shaitels.
Neither the quote I cited nor other parts of his comment(s) seem to demonstrate that such blessings were given. They seem to assume that such blessings were given merely based on the claim (even if we assume accurately) that the daughters wore wigs-only.
Their daughter-in-laws would be a better example than their daughters, since the daughters likely would’ve switched to their new husband’s minhag. (Even regarding DILs, we should really see something more than an assumption it was done with the father’s blessing.)