Chossid asked for clarification on how on the one hand I can say that one should not perform mitzvos for the sake of bringing Mashiach, while in a later post I wrote that it’s brought in seforim (Amud Ha’avodah et al) that one should perform mitzvos in order to “enable” kevayochol Hashem to give us sechar.
I’m surprised that it took this long for anyone to point that out, as when I wrote it I wondered if/when it would be asked.
The way I understand it the difference is that Chazal tell us “schar mitzva, mitzva” and seforim therefore explain it the way they understand it on a higher and deeper level. Nowhere, that I know of, do Chazal make a statement that has led to gedolei olam of earlier generations – the Amud Ha’avodah was a contemporary of the Baal Shem Tov – saying that one should perform mitzvos in order to bring Mashiach.
Of course, it’s only “that I know of” and I am willing to be corrected.
Btw, Chossid, you wrote “You don’t need to respond. I think it’s worthless.
And waste of time. Until you want to open up a safer and learn the a subject and check the facts, before you come to conclusions”
I have opened a “safer” (I like the way you spell that) and I have learned the subject and checked the facts. So that is why I have come to my conclusions. They may be wrong, but I’ll need you or someone else to show me why.