This is my bewilderment: If one has a minhag to not fulfill a mitzvah and he is unable to find a substantial Heter then he would still be mechuyav to fulfill the mitzvah regardless of the baloney he received in his community. As far as i remember, RSo said that he has no issue with the minhag per se but with the “warped”(in his understanding) explanation that the Lubavitch Rebbe provided to explain the Heter in Halachik terms. (am i correct on that?) I take issue with that outlook on yiddishkeit. I may have a very holy and ancient minhag to not keep shabbos, but as long as i keep it in the realm of MINHAG and don’t bluff that it has a halachik and legal basis, then im alright?! am i missing something here RSO?
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