Anyusernamd: “Now not to proof it from the wording in the abarbanel because in that we have our own opinions, but I think from the artscroll which looks pretty clear. Would be better (Which is also why I brought the artscroll to begin with. As I mentioned the first time.)”
Quoting a footnote in an Artscroll to “prove” what the Abarbanel means is very weak, and makes me think that you didn’t see the Abarbanel inside. Had you seen it inside you would never have written that he said what you said he did.
Note, you quoted Rashi as a proof where he clearly is not, as you seem to have accepted (although not chas Veshalom admitted) and you quoted a Maharsho as proof where he clearly is not, and you have never addressed that.
You also told us that your rebbe is ben achar ben from Dovid Hamelech because he is ben achar ben from the Metzudos who was ben achar ben from Dovid. Neither of those claims have been validated at all.
So overall, you can’t really expect me to take your claims too seriously.