zdad
“Sephardic Sefer, as is the Tur and the Rosh” incorrect on both accounts
When the Rosh fled to Spain he influenced one of the most distinguished communities of Spain, Toledo,
of the superiority of mesoras Ashkenaz. There are more than a few other examples. Why is there nary an example the other way?
(excepting the Romaniotes of the Balkans who switched from being under the sway of Franco-German Jewry to the newly Sephardic arrivals though that was due to sociopolitical as much as any else)