“The reason that gun control works in other countries is because they don’t have a constitution that allows gun ownership”
1) Neither do we , at least not until it was reinterpreted in Heller. We can always just interpret it as it was originally understood for the first 200 years of its existence or so
2) Even if there was a constitution that allowed individual private gun ownership, that would have no bearing on whether “gun control works” or not.
It sounds like you are saying ok gun control works but we are “stuck” because of the constitution, but the constitution can be amended so this argument doesn’t make much sense