@n0mesorah: 1) “It wasn’t publicly realized until Spinoza’s philosophy was being openly debated. At that point, all the early philosophers were dead.”
This is demonstrably false. Spinoza’s Ethics was translated into German in the year 1677 and came under constant and unrelenting attack ever since. Virtually every professor of theology or philosophy wrote an attack against him and he was known as Satan himself. For an overview of this see Grunwald, Spinoza in Deutschland specifically pgs. 45-48. Thus, the debate on Spinoza actually predates the enlightenment. Furthermore the first generation (or at the minimum early) of Enlighteners, Kant, Mendelsohn, Herder, Jacobi (and thus Lessing) and many more directly attacked/interoperated Spinoza. In short, Spinoza was always actively engaged in Germany.
2) I am referring to the fact that it originated in Germany, the birthplace of Protestantism.
3) a) Leibniz was not strictly an enlightener, furthermore which Leibniz are we referring to, published or unpublished works. One can scarcely consider an adherent to the Monadic theory a strict empiricist.
b) Mendelsohn. As mentioned above, first of all he was a Wolffian, and his Morgenstudatten is not exactly a piece of enlightenment philosophy. Furthermore Mendelsohn’s opinion on reason on faith and Judaism was not accepted in the secular establishment. His above referenced Morgenstunden is perhaps the last Wolffian philosophical work written. This just further highlights my point made above, that Mendelssohn’s view of the ideal of the enlightenment were not congruent with the secular ones.
c) Herder. Kant’s broadside on Herder was exactly that. Herder was reverting to pre-enlightenment ideas of reason and postulating ‘Vitalistic’ ideas which were not empirical. So, in sum, yes, these philosophers were not enlightened in secular understanding.