I’m not a lawyer, but I find it hard to believe that one would be exempt from any damages (including civil damages) that result from providing alcohol to a minor simply by claiming that this was done for religious purposes. As I understand it, religious beliefs do not absolve someone from damages resulting from carrying out these beliefs, so I’m not sure why this would be different. For example, a parent who neglects to provide basic medical care to his child, claiming that his religious beliefs prohibit this, can be held liable if the child suffers an illness or dies as a result. (This past spring a Wisconsin couple was indicted for neglecting to seek medical treatment for their daughter’s diabetes; she died of diabetic ketoacidosis as they prayed for her). If Chuck Schwab is here, I’d appreciate it if he could elaborate on this.
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