MM, I most certainly have been following this interesting conversation carefully. It’s been great reading, particularly the literal tendencies that are most interesting to read…
Here’s cantoresq’s revised question again: “MM based on your understanding of the passage you quoted, can women attain a share of olam habah if neither their husbands or children ever learn any Torah?”
Here’s your response: “cantoresq, based on my understanding of the passage I quoted and on the limited description you provided of the women you refer to, I don’t see anything they’ve done to merit Olam Haboah.”
Here are some possibilities for your perusal:
The woman’s husband doesn’t learn Torah because she doesn’t have a husband yet.
The woman’s children don’t learn Torah because she doesn’t have children yet.
The woman’s husband is not able to learn because of reasons beyond his or her control(can you think of some reasons?).
The woman’s children are not able to learn because of reason’s beyond their or her control.
The woman’s children are infants and are not yet learning Torah.
The woman is a ba’al Teshuva and her husband/children aren’t and he/they refuse to learn Torah.
Can you think of some more?
Do you know what exclusive terminology means?
Do you know the difference between “only gets Olam Haba if…” and “gets Olam Haba by…”?
Shavua Tov.