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January 11, 2012 6:14 pm at 6:14 pm
#962689
gregaaron
Member
@Sam:
The woman who remarries without a Get would not be ???? ????? because of that ?????; it needs to be ??? ????. She would, however, be ???? on account of her being a woman, unless she managed to overcome that issue (in which case the husband is certainly not at fault for withholding the ??).
@PBA:
There actually <is> a list of states, all below the Mason-Dixon line, from which all children are presumed to be ???????.