MHY: “Ashkenazic Jews have roots, somewhere down the line, in Ashkenaz (Germany)”
Actually there were “Ashkenazi” communities in France, Italy and Austria as far back in history as the ones in Germany. Anyways, there were established communities in Eastern Europe 500 years ago. Why should someone drop 5 centuries of minhagim because his ancestors may have briefly sojourned in Germany previously? And if you want to follow only “original” minhagim, go farther back to Bavel and EY???
“Authentic Sepharadim have a similar kesher to Spain”
Not true. The community in Bavel even had yeshivos that were open consecutively from before the destruction of the First Beis HaMikdash until Saddam Hussein closed them. Similarly Egypt had a community during the time of the Bayis Sheini. Neither of them originated in Spain, but they are referred to as “sefardim”.
I think the Rashba knew minhagei Sefarad as well, and he writes that they did NOT wear tefillin. Remember the Beis Yosef left Spain 5 years old while the Rambam was born and raised there and only move to Egypt later in life. The fact is that anyone familiar with minhagei Sefarad knows that they do NOT consistently follow the Rosh, who only moved to Spain after his children were grown and married unlike Marcus Lehman.
I am aware that many Rishonim hold tefillin is not worn CHM. My point was that those who do not wear did not ORIGINATE from Kaballa.