I know a story where a man divorced his wife because of infidelity, and remarried her a few yrs later….
If it was his indiscretion, it was permissible for him to remarry her (since they needn’t have gotten divorced in the first place.) But if it were her indiscretion, he was required to divorce and her and prohibited from ever remarrying her.
What are the halochos vice versa? If a frum man takes a Jewish woman.,?
I think he has to be killed as well.But what about divorce?
AC: Bizman Hazeh an indiscretion on the man’s part should be enough for her to request a divorce because the implied obligation in most marriage nowadays is that she will be the only person he is with. No death penalty unless the woman was married though and there is no obligation to divorce.
sam- Do you have a sif in S”A to backup your assertion that is a case she is entitled to ask for a get? Or better yet, where in S”A it is listed the reasons she can ask for one? Thanks
I would think it’s common sense that couples nowadays assume that when they get married that the husband will remain faithful to the wife. She could also claim a concern of getting diseases if she stays with the husband because of what he has now exposed himself to.