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What is the general consensus about a sefardi, who does not recite the bracha before or after hallel, who davens for the amud in an ashkenaz/nusach sefard minyan. To say or not to say?
THAT! is my question…..
He’s gotta say it, since it’s the minhag hamokem.
My rav paskened that if I am davening from the amud I *always* follow the nusach of the shul no matter what my own personal nusach is.
Should he forgo davening for the amud because of this? Or can he use the minhag hamakom idea to daven and say the bracha?