Obviously if the gedolim say to oppose it, then that is what we have to do. But I am trying to understand why.
abcd2: There is a difference between the children in Yerushalayim who are not exposed to the goyishe world and the rest of the children who will likely have contact with goyim in their teenage years. But even with the pashkeveilim at least their exposure shed a negative light on toeivah.
But in metziyus do you see even one Jew who has a taivah for mishkav zachar not being oiver only because he couldn’t get married?