Kashas on the Parsha

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  • #1169341

    tzaddiq
    Member

    wolfishmusings – i believe there is a gemara that deals with that issue, of whether moshe recived all 613 mitzvos with the entire torah as we know it, or he received it part by part as time went on.

    #1169342

    WolfishMusings
    Participant

    i believe there is a gemara that deals with that issue, of whether moshe recived all 613 mitzvos with the entire torah as we know it, or he received it part by part as time went on.

    Yes, it’s a machlokes in the gemara.

    However, I don’t see how it’s possible to say that Moshe received the entire Torah in it’s final form at Sinai. After all, consider the following:

    It says in B’Shalach that the B’nei Yisroel ate the manna for forty years until they entered Eretz Canaan. If this verse appeared as such at Sinai, wouldn’t someone have asked “Hey, what do you mean we’re going to be in the wilderness for forty years?”

    If the Torah was given to Moshe in its final form at Sinai, why would Moshe hit the rock when he knew in advance that it would cause him to not enter Eretz Yisroel?

    If the Torah was given in its final form to Moshe at Sinai, would Korach have rebelled knowing the fate that he was in for? Would the spies have brought back their report, knowing in advance the grim consequences? Would Zimri have committed his act, knowing that Pinchas was waiting in the crowd with his spear? Would Aharon’s two sons have done what they did, knowing that it would have cost them their lives?

    If the Torah was given at Sinai in its final form, why would Moshe need to bring the question of Tzelaphchad’s daughters to HaShem? He already had the answer. Likewise, why would there be any doubt about the form of death penalty for the wood-gatherer? When the people who were tamei on Pesach wanted an opportunity to bring the Korban Pesach, why did Moshe tell them to wait for HaShem to answer them?

    From these questions, it is very clear that the Torah was not given in its final form at Sinai. The text of the Torah could only have been finalized at the end of the forty years.

    The Wolf

    #1169343

    tzaddiq
    Member

    talmud- lol, that’s the worst thing u could’ve done, is watch ‘the 10 commandments’! now ur whole perspective on kabbolas hatora is messed up for life, lol! jk

    to answer baalhabooze, i will first note for you that the Ten Commandments actually have eleven or fourteen commandments (mitzvas) depending how you count. the whole name “Ten Commandments” is a mis-nomer. A far better translation of the Hebrew aseres hadibros is Decalogue or Ten Utterances.

    i once heard a series of lectures by Rabbi Moshe Eisemann (from baltimore) on the theme, that the commandments which are part of the Decalogue are special not in the commandment value, per se, but that together they define a kind of “constitution” of the Jewish people. that these are a basic framework, and 10 yesoidos, which defines the relationship that God wants with His people, and which make up His nation as the ‘mamlechess kohanim v’goy kodosh’.

    #1169344

    HaLeiVi
    Participant

    The Machlokes is if the Torah was given at once or piece by piece. What Moshe got at Har Sinai was the Mitzvos with all their details, not the Sefer Torah. He didn’t even get the Drashos of how we know one from the other, until he got the Sefer Torah.

    #1169345

    WolfishMusings
    Participant

    What Moshe got at Har Sinai was the Mitzvos with all their details

    Clearly not *all* the details.

    He did not receive which death penalty a mechallel Shabbos receives.

    He did not receive the mitzvah of Pesach Sheini.

    He did not receive the halacha regarding daughters inheriting in the absence of sons.

    The Wolf

    #1169346

    tzaddiq
    Member

    i think bepashtus that a short concise and powerful shiur is the best formula & method for an audience to remember the shiur. and that’s what hashem did, but condensing the 613 mitzvos down to 10. he kept it short, concise and powerful, and is now forever inbeded into the jewish memorybank.

    #1169347

    BaalHabooze
    Participant

    PARSHAS TETZAVEH


    Why is Moshe’s name absent in this week’s parsha?

    (now let’s see how many answers can we collect…)

    #1169348

    WIY
    Member

    BaalHabooze

    Its actually missing in all the Bereishis Parshios too oh no we have a mystery on our hands…

    #1169349

    WIY
    Member

    BH

    Heres one probably nobody here has ever heard.

    from shlomokluger.com

    #1169350

    sam4321
    Participant

    Rav Ovadia Yosef said a great pshat.Moshe says ???? ?? ?????.He says one could read it ???? ?? ???? ?.which means erase me from sefer kaf which equals 20 and the 20th parsha is tzaveh so Moshes plea was granted.

    #1169351

    tzaddiq
    Member

    another pshat is when moshe said ???? ?? ????? in parshas ki sisa, hashem said that the tenai of a tzaddik is mekuyam even when there is no tenai lemayseh. so the next week came, parshas vayakhel, and hashem said ‘not right now’, so he postponed it. then each week he kept pushing off the task of erasing moshe’s name. finallyy by the last week before he came full circle, was parshas tetzave, so he had no choice and erased his name in that last parsha.

    #1169353

    HaLeiVi
    Participant

    This is the best Parsha to leave out his name since he won’t really be erased from the Parsha. This entire Parsha is a command to him. So, we are reading Moshe all over while it technically doesn’t have his name.

    #1169354

    BaalHabooze
    Participant

    Nice! Keep ’em coming!

    Of course, there’s the famous GR”A who answers that since 7 Adar always comes out on parshas Tetzaveh, so although he is not mentioned explicitly in this week’s sedra, nevertheless ??? ??? ??

    #1169355

    WolfishMusings
    Participant

    *cough*Nitzavim*cough*

    The Wolf

    #1169356

    WIY
    Member

    Wolf

    Why you coughing about Parshas Nitzavim?

    #1169357

    HaLeiVi
    Participant

    WIY, probably because Nitzavim doesn’t either have Moshe Rabbeinu’s name, and that doesn’t seem to bother anyone.

    #1169358

    WIY
    Member

    Haleivi

    Passuk Lamed has Moshes name.

    #1169359

    BaalHabooze
    Participant

    WIY – that’s parshas Vayeilech, not Nitzovim. Interesting, I never heard this issue raised in nitzovim, only tetzaveh…

    Ki Sisa


    Why is the mitzva to make a Kiyor for the Mishkan in this week’s parsha, and not in parshas Teruma together with all the other Keilim?

    #1169360

    musser zoger
    Participant

    I dont think Moshe’s name is in Shoftim or ki seitzri. but dont have a chumash with me.

    #1169361

    Chortkov
    Participant

    Baal Habooze – I am talking through my hat here, but this weeks Parsha discusses parts of the daily avodah in the bais hamikdash – it could be that besides for the kiyor being part of the binyan habayis, part of the tzurah for the avodah was to have a kiyar there. (I have heard this sort of vort b’nogea the hadlokas hamenorah and the lechem haponim, in different variations.)

    #1169362

    WIY
    Member

    BH

    Actually I saw that sefer Devorim is not included in this whole thing because Devorim is mishneh Torah a repetition. So it only goes until Massei end of Bamidbar and I dont think theres any other parsha that doesnt have Moshes name.

    #1169363

    Chortkov
    Participant

    VAYAKHEL-PEKUDAEI

    Rashi says that the reason why Shabbos is mentioned here is that the Bnei Yisroel shouldn’t think that the Binyan HaMishkan is Docheh Shabbos.

    If there would be no such Posuk, would we have thought that they can be docheh Shabbos? Shabbos is an ??? ??? ????, and there is no ???? of ??? ???? ?? ????? It is also a ?? ???? ??? ?? ????, which also would not have the ??????

    #1169364

    tzaddiq
    Member

    “Why is the mitzva to make a Kiyor for the Mishkan in this week’s parsha, and not in parshas Teruma together with all the other Keilim?”

    if you look at the first shtikel of meshech chochma on parshas ki sisa, although he doesn’t ask yur kashah, he neverthless answers it beautifully.

    [washing the hands and feet aren’t a din in the kiyor per se, but in the makom (i.e. between the mizbayach and ohel moed.) ???? ??]

    #1169365

    BaalHabooze
    Participant

    Nice, tzaddiq! Thanks!

    VAYIKRA


    Q. What in the world is “Leviticus”?? 😛

    #1169366

    WIY
    Member

    BaalHabooze

    Better question is what on earth is a Deuteronomy? Sounds like some type of surgery.

    #1169367

    BaalHabooze
    Participant

    lol, WIY!

    I’m not even gonna try to pronounce the english name for Koheles (Ecclesiastes), but who on earth created that ridiculous name, must have drunk lots more booze than even I can handle!

    #1169368

    Chortkov
    Participant

    And the Tetragrammaton is the worst of all!

    #1169369

    Wisey
    Participant

    Vayikrah is about the avodas hacohanim (toras kohanim) so it is called LEVIticus. Deuteronomy means some thing to do with a summary and regarding Eccle…. I agree with Baal Habooze.

    #1169370

    WIY
    Member

    Why is Tzaraas white, white is a distinguished color, the color of purity, righteousness, and innocence, it is the color of a special breed? Wouldnt it be more appropriate for Tzaraas to be black?

    #1169371

    Chortkov
    Participant

    Parshas Emor

    Rashi at the end of the parsha says by the ???? that “???? ??? ?????” tells us “???? ???????”. Now, the ???? says that he was ?? ??? ???????, so why was he ??????

    There is a ??? in :??????? ?”? (and I think in ????? ?? but not sure) which says that ???? ?????? ???? ??? ?? ?? ????? ????? ??? means that the ???? is a ???. If so, then the son here would need to be ?????. (See ??? in ??????? ?? and ???? and ????? as to whether ??? holds of this ????)

    Anybody have another ????

    #1169372

    Shticky Guy
    Participant

    yekke2 I came here to post another question on emor but just read yours and do you know I thought of the same question over shabbos. I answered it that before matan torah a person was only jewish if their father was, not their mother like nowadays.

    The question I wanted to post is on the same topic – Rashi said the Ben Isha Yisraelis had become a ger and that shevet Dan did not let him set up tent among them. I was wondering, where did all the gerim set up their tents? There were many gerim who joined klal yisrael in the midbar. Did they have their own area? And where did the eruv rav have their tents? And when they conquered eretz yisrael, which portion did the gerim get?

    #1169373

    Shticky Guy
    Participant

    yekke2 I came here to post another question on emor but just read yours and do you know I thought of the same question over shabbos. I answered it that before matan torah a person was only jewish if their father was, not their mother like nowadays.

    The question I wanted to post is on the same topic – Rashi said the Ben Isha Yisraelis had become a ger and that shevet Dan did not let him set up tent among them. I was wondering, where did all the gerim set up their tents? There were many gerim who joined klal yisrael in the midbar. Did they have their own area? And where did the eruv rav have their tents? And when they conquered eretz yisrael, which portion did the gerim get?

    #1169374

    Chortkov
    Participant

    Shticky Guy – I think the Eruv Rav (and probably also the geirim) set up camp out of the ???? ?????.

    I asked one of my Rabeim, and he told me your tirutz (possibly from the Rambam; alternatively it could have been the Raavad on Toras Cohanim). Another answer is (like a wrote above) that even after ??? ???? if the father in not Jewish, then even if the mother is, the child will not be Jewish (contary to common belief). The ??? ???? brings a proof from this ???.

    Another ????? was that we are saying he was ????? at ?? ???? just like everybody else; the ????? is that he came even though he father was an Egyptian, the ???? is informing us that he wasn’t because he came with his mother to convert.

    #1169375

    LanderTalmid
    Participant

    Parshas Bamidbar

    In a few places Rashi says that there were 4 digallim- three shvatim per degel, other than the 12 degallim that each shevet had. Does anyone know pshat in these digallim? Colors?

    #1169376

    Sam2
    Participant

    LT: I believe the Little Midrash Says book said all of them and gave a possible representation. I don’t know what his source was though.

    #1169377

    WIY
    Member

    Lander Talmid

    The Gemara in Nedarim (58a) tells us that in order for the Shechina to rest on someone, he must have four attributes; he must be wise, rich, strong, and modest. The Kli Yakar says that grouping of the encampment of Bnei Yisroel into four Degalim was to highlight these four attributes of Klal Yisroel. so that the Shechina would rest on us.

    All four Degalim surrounded the Mishkan because these attributes were used only to serve Hashem and bring the Shechina down to Klal Yisroel..

    From Revach.net

    #1169378

    Chortkov
    Participant

    Parshas Shelach Lecha

    The ???? says: ????? ??? ????? ????? ?????? ??? ????? ???? ???? ???? – Why does the ???? feel it necessary to tell us that the Bnei Yisroel were in the ?????

    The ???? ????? brings from the ???? ???? that the ???? in ??? ??? says the ???? and ?????? ???? are ???? ???. The ???? ???? asks: Based on the ???? of ????? (Like :????? ??, where it says that because one is allowed to cook for guests on ??? ???, one is allowed to cook extras even if there are no guests, and he will eat it ????), one should be allowed to be ????? ???? since it could be required for ?????

    (??? in ????? asks why anything is ???? on ??? – say that ????? that it is ???? for a ???? ??? ?? ???? say that it is ???? always, and ??? answers that a ???? is not ????. However, the ?? ????? ?? says that ???? is called ????)

    To answer this, the ???? says ????? ??? ????? ????? –> In the ????, the ??? ????? didn’t do ???? (See ????? ?? and ??? ??????? ??) because there was no ??? ??????. {Even though apparently ??? ??? did do ????, it could still be that it was not yet called ????}

    (This could also be why the story of the ????? is brought after the ?????? – the reason there was no ??? ?????? was because of the ??? ???????; see :??? ??????? ??.)

    #1169379

    nem621
    Member

    to answer some questions that are a little old (2 months) the english names for the parts or the torah are from the gemara names i.e. levitucus is Torahs cohanim so although it isnt a perfect translation one can see where it comes from

    #1169380

    WIY
    Member

    yekke2

    Nice dvar Torah. Thanks.

    #1169381

    HaLeiVi
    Participant

    Yekke, the Terutz is nice but it seems like something needs to be understood better with the concept of Ho’il.

    The Kasha from Choleh is even bigger. Even when you are doing it for a Choleh, you can’t be Mosif.

    I guess this goes back to Hutra or Dechuya. If it is Dechuya then we can’t say Ho’il.

    #1169382

    Chortkov
    Participant

    I think it comes out from the Shaagas Arye a chiddush that now that ???? is ???? one CAN be ???? on ?????? ???? without any ???? using the concept of ?????.

    #1169383

    HaLeiVi
    Participant

    By saying that, you threw out quite a few of the 39 Melachos. That can’t be the case.

    #1169384

    Chortkov
    Participant

    Halevi – I know, that is what I was pointing out. However, the Shaagas Arye’s answer will only make sense if that is the case – he learns that is why the Torah needed to say ????? ??? ????? ?????, and if not we WOULD have said ?????!

    #1169385

    Shticky Guy
    Participant

    I know this is a little late but I forgot to post this a couple of weeks ago.

    At the end of ??? ?? is the ???? of ???. Many ?????? for example the ??? ?????? say that ????? has the ?????? of ???? cuz ????? is 600, plus the 8 threads and 5 knots equals 613.

    The problem is that all 3 times that ????? is mentioned, it is spelled ???? which only comes to 603.

    Can anyone provide a good explanation? I heard a pshetl, but I’m looking for a real answer.

    Thanks

    #1169386

    Shticky Guy
    Participant

    While I wait for an answer to my question above, I’ll share with you a question that I had while learning ??? last week. ??? says on ?? ??? that although the ??? flattened all mountains in front of them, but 3 mountains remained: ?? ???? ?????, ??? ??? ?????? ???, ??? ??? ?????? ???? (these are not in chronological order).

    What about other mountains that we know remained?

    For example the mountains surrounding ?? ???? that we know were arguing over which of them should be the one the ???? would be given on? (Perhaps we can suggest that once ??? ????? arrived there the others were flattened?).

    And what about the mountains that ??? himself brings later that the ??????? were hiding in to attack ??? ????? and both mountains squashed together and killed them as ??? ????? passed thru? (Can we maybe say that they were kept to protect ??? ????? and even parted after so that ??? ????? would see what had happened and this is why they remained?)

    But why did ??? not mention that these also remained standing? He says only 3 stayed.

    And what about ?? ?????? + ?? ???? ?

    #1169387

    Chortkov
    Participant

    For example the mountains surrounding ?? ???? that we know were arguing over which of them should be the one the ???? would be given on? (Perhaps we can suggest that once ??? ????? arrived there the others were flattened?).

    Doesn’t the Medrash say that those mountains came from over the world, not locally from Sinai?

    #1169388

    Shticky Guy
    Participant

    yekke2 thank you that’s a wonderful ???? that I did not know and would explain that example well.

    What about the other examples that I gave?

    #1169389

    simcha613
    Participant

    I find it strange that in some places in this weeks ????, the ???? uses the words ?? and ?? interchangeably. For example, ???? ask to curse ??? ????? using the word (?? (??? ??? ?? ???? and ?’ responds using the language (?? (?? ??? ?? ???. Usually we don’t assume that two different words are synonymous in the ???? (especially here as ??”? tells us that these are two different levels of curses), so why the inconsistency?

    #1169390

    HaLeiVi
    Participant

    On the Tzitzis Kasha, which I think the Ramban asks, the Maharal says that we are counting the word itself, not how the Torah spelled it. The Sma”g has another approach, which I don’t remember off hand. Whoever gets there first can post it.

    #1169391

    HaLeiVi
    Participant

    Here it is:

    ??? ???? ????? ????? ????? ?? ???? ????? ??? ???”? ?????? ?? ??? ???? ????? ????? ????? ????? ?? ??? ????? ?????? ???? ???? ???? ??? ??? ??? ?????? ?? ??? ?? ??? ??? ???? ????? ????? ???? ????? ????? ???? ???? ????? ????? ????? ??? ???? ???? ???, ????? ?????? ???? ????? ??? ??”? ?????? ????? ??????? ?? ???? ??? ???? ??? ???? ????? ????? ????? ???? ??? ????? ???”? ????? ??? ?????? ????? ????? ????”? ????? ????? ?????? ????? ??? ???”? ?????

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